In English, it’s generally written as Judah when referring to the period before Alexander, then Judea after.
Judah is the anglicized form of Yehudah, and Judea is the anglicized form of Iūdaea, which is how the Romans spelled Ιουδαΐα, which is how the Greeks approximated “Yehudah.” (The Latin and Greek words were both pronounced something like yoo-DAY-uh. How the J came to be pronounced like the two consonants in “Judge” is a whole nother story.)
In the comic, I’ve avoided the term Judah because it’s not quite accurate. “Judah” gets used to refer both to the kingdom of Yehudah, and to the Babylonian and Persian provinces of Yehud. But they were different things, and I thought the distinction was important enough to use the historical words. Well, the modern English transliteration of the historical words, anyway.
Any experts in historical linguistics out there—and I know you’re out there—please feel free to correct the heck out of this! (Grammar experts upset about “whole nother” are free to keep it to themselves.)
“…and the need to destroy a fellow human being, for no other reason than the neurons in his brain might explain the world with an unapproved narrative.”
How/why/when did the standard English spelling change from Yehud to Judea?
In English, it’s generally written as Judah when referring to the period before Alexander, then Judea after.
Judah is the anglicized form of Yehudah, and Judea is the anglicized form of Iūdaea, which is how the Romans spelled Ιουδαΐα, which is how the Greeks approximated “Yehudah.” (The Latin and Greek words were both pronounced something like yoo-DAY-uh. How the J came to be pronounced like the two consonants in “Judge” is a whole nother story.)
In the comic, I’ve avoided the term Judah because it’s not quite accurate. “Judah” gets used to refer both to the kingdom of Yehudah, and to the Babylonian and Persian provinces of Yehud. But they were different things, and I thought the distinction was important enough to use the historical words. Well, the modern English transliteration of the historical words, anyway.
Any experts in historical linguistics out there—and I know you’re out there—please feel free to correct the heck out of this! (Grammar experts upset about “whole nother” are free to keep it to themselves.)
Also, if anyone has a better idea for how to draw the “kinda”/”so-so” hand gesture, I’m open to suggestions.
Just a plain palm up?
I think it works perfectly, but that’s just my personal neurons speaking.
lol (and thanks)
“…and the need to destroy a fellow human being, for no other reason than the neurons in his brain might explain the world with an unapproved narrative.”
So, not much change since then.